NASM personal trainer certification, the CPT exam in brief

In the frontal plane, which movement occurs at the shoulder joint when raising the arm directly out to the side?

Use Check on the answer you favor. The verdict shows up with a short note on each choice.

1. Abduction
   Check

   Raising the arm straight out to the side moves it away from the body's midline, which is abduction, and that motion happens in the frontal plane.
2. Flexion
   Check

   Shoulder flexion raises the arm forward in front of the body, a sagittal-plane motion rather than a sideways one.
3. Rotation
   Check

   Rotation turns the humerus around its long axis (internal or external rotation) in the transverse plane; it does not lift the arm sideways.
4. Extension
   Check

   Shoulder extension moves the arm backward behind the body in the sagittal plane, the reverse of flexion.

Which balance assessment would be most appropriate for evaluating a client's static balance capability?

1. Star Excursion Balance Test
   Check

   The Star Excursion Balance Test has the client reach the free leg in several directions while balancing, so it measures dynamic balance, not stillness.
2. Single-Leg Stance Test
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   Timing how long a client holds a still, one-legged stance isolates static balance, because the base of support never moves.
3. T-Test
   Check

   The T-Test is a timed sprint-and-shuffle course used for agility; it says little about holding a stationary position.
4. Thomas Test
   Check

   The Thomas test checks hip flexor length while the client lies on a table; it is a flexibility assessment, not a balance test.

In Phase 1 (Stabilization Endurance) of the OPT model, which repetition tempo is typically prescribed?

1. 2/0/2: moderate lowering and lifting, no pause
   Check

   A moderate 2/0/2 tempo belongs to the strength-focused phases, where the goal shifts from stabilization toward force and muscle growth.
2. X/X/X: as fast as can be controlled
   Check

   Moving as fast as can be controlled is the tempo of maximal-strength and power work, which comes after stabilization is built.
3. 4/2/1: slow lowering, brief pause, controlled lift
   Check

   Phase 1 uses about four seconds of lowering, a two-second isometric hold, and a one-second controlled lift, so the client spends more time under tension controlling posture and joint position.
4. 1/0/4: quick lowering, no pause, very slow lifting
   Check

   Dropping quickly through the lowering phase removes the slow eccentric control that stabilization training depends on.

A beginner lands a box jump on top of an 18-inch box. Why should the client step down from the box instead of jumping down?

1. Jumping down adds power training a beginner needs
   Check

   Jumping down from a box creates a depth-jump stimulus, an advanced reactive drill that beginners are not ready for.
2. Stepping down keeps the heart rate higher between reps
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   Stepping down actually lets the heart rate settle a little; the reason for it is joint loading, not conditioning.
3. Jumping down is allowed only with a spotter present
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   A spotter cannot cushion a landing; the problem with jumping down is the impact on the client's joints, not supervision.
4. Stepping down avoids a needless high-impact landing
   Check

   Dropping from the box lands the client with more force than the jump up produced; stepping down skips that extra impact, which a beginner gains nothing from.