ACE practice test: 30 questions, reasons for every option
Facts checked against acefitness.orgLast checked Nov 4, 2026
A free ACE practice test for the Certified Personal Trainer exam: 30 questions on the four domains, spread roughly in line with their weights. Choose an answer to read the reasoning behind every option.
30 questions on the four ACE domains
30 questions on this page · 0 answeredYour score: 0 of 0 correct
1/30 · Onboarding · 23%
A client with hypertension takes an ACE inhibitor (lisinopril). What effect should the trainer expect on her heart-rate response to exercise?
Use Check on the answer you favor. The verdict shows up with a short note on each choice.
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ACE inhibitors do not push exercise heart rate up, which is why heart-rate targets stay usable for this client.
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A blunted heart-rate response is the hallmark of beta blockers, the drug class most often confused with ACE inhibitors.
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ACE inhibitors relax blood vessels and do not act on the heart's beta receptors, so heart rate at rest and in exercise shows little or no change.
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ACE inhibitors leave resting heart rate where it was, so a rise at rest alone is not their effect.
2/30 · Onboarding · 23%
What does the hurdle step screen PRIMARILY assess?
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Seated thoracic rotation is its own screen of the upper back and plays no part in stepping over a hurdle.
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Shoulder mobility and scapular control are checked with upper-body screens such as the shoulder push stabilization screen.
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Clearing the hurdle asks the stance leg, pelvis and trunk to stay stable while the swing leg flexes at the hip, so stability and mobility are tested at once.
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Squat depth and ankle dorsiflexion are judged in the bend-and-lift screen, which is done on two feet.
3/30 · Onboarding · 23%
A client arrives for a resting blood-pressure check having just smoked a cigarette and finished a large coffee. What is the BEST approach?
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Noting the caffeine on the form explains the number but still records a falsely high value as the client's resting pressure.
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Averaging a reading from each arm does nothing about the stimulants, since both readings carry the same upward bias.
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Nicotine and caffeine distort a resting reading for a while after use, so the measurement waits at least 30 minutes and follows about 5 minutes of quiet sitting.
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Measuring after only 5 minutes of seated rest is too short for the effect of a fresh cigarette and coffee to wear off.
4/30 · Onboarding · 23%
At intake, a client says she took an over-the-counter decongestant (pseudoephedrine) this morning for a cold. How is this MOST likely to affect her resting measurements?
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A decongestant speeds the heart rather than slowing it, so lowering heart rate only does not fit.
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Lowering both heart rate and blood pressure describes a beta blocker, the opposite of how a decongestant acts.
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Pseudoephedrine is a sympathomimetic that narrows blood vessels and stimulates the heart, so it tends to raise resting heart rate and blood pressure.
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Assuming no meaningful effect would let a drug-inflated reading stand as her true baseline.
5/30 · Onboarding · 23%
A client shows a flat-back posture, with a reduced lumbar curve and a posteriorly tilted pelvis. Which program focus is MOST appropriate?
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The erector spinae are already lengthened in a flat back, and stronger abdominals would pull the pelvis further into posterior tilt.
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Calf stretching and general quadriceps work leave the short hamstrings untouched, so the pelvis stays tucked under.
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Stretching the hip flexors and strengthening the hamstrings is the plan for an anterior tilt and would flatten this client's low back further.
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Short hamstrings hold the pelvis in posterior tilt, so lengthening them and strengthening the weak hip flexors helps restore the lumbar curve.
6/30 · Onboarding · 23%
During a 1-RM test, within how many attempts should the trainer aim to find the client's 1-RM?
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Small load increases with full rest between tries should find the maximum within about 3 to 5 attempts, before fatigue drags the result down.
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By heavy attempts 6 to 8, accumulated fatigue lowers what the client can lift, so the result underestimates the true 1-RM.
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Making 10 to 12 near-maximal attempts exhausts the client and raises injury risk long before a valid maximum is reached.
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Taking as many attempts as needed ignores fatigue; a 1-RM test follows a planned progression of loads, not trial and error.
7/30 · Program design · 31%
A client lost 6 lb in the first week of a very low-carbohydrate diet and is thrilled. Which explanation should the trainer share?
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A low-carb diet does not burn fat far faster: fat comes off at the pace set by the overall energy deficit, whatever the carbohydrate share.
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Each gram of stored glycogen is held with roughly 3 g of water, so using up glycogen when carbohydrate is cut sheds several pounds of water in the first week.
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Resting metabolism does not jump within a week of cutting carbohydrate, so it cannot account for a 6-lb drop.
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Muscle tissue is lost slowly if at all over one week and does not make up most of a sudden 6-lb drop.
8/30 · Program design · 31%
A client alternates a set of chest presses with a set of seated rows, with no rest between the two. What is this method called?
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A drop set lowers the load on one exercise and keeps going, with no second exercise involved.
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Alternating chest presses and seated rows without rest pairs opposing muscle groups in a superset, so one group recovers while the other works.
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A pyramid set changes load and reps from set to set on the same lift; it does not alternate two exercises.
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A compound set links two exercises for the same muscle group, whereas chest and upper back are opposites here.
9/30 · Program design · 31%
A client with type 2 diabetes asks how she should schedule her exercise across the week. Which guidance is MOST appropriate?
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No guideline ties exercise to glucose below 150 mg/dL; regular activity is itself one of the main ways to bring glucose down.
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No guideline restricts exercise to fasted mornings; what matters is regular activity spread through the week at a time that fits.
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Two days a week leaves long gaps in which the insulin-sensitizing effect is lost; lows are managed with glucose checks and carbohydrate, not by training less.
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One session raises insulin sensitivity for only a day or two, so activity is spread through the week with no more than 2 consecutive days off.
10/30 · Program design · 31%
A client struggles to learn the kettlebell swing as a whole movement. Which teaching approach is MOST appropriate?
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A faster tempo leaves less time to feel the hinge, so the errors speed up instead of going away.
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Drilling the hip hinge before adding the hip snap lets the client master each part before combining them, which is part practice.
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Repeating the full swing while the pattern is faulty only grooves the error the client is already making.
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A heavier bell adds load before the pattern exists, which raises injury risk and makes the fault harder to correct.
11/30 · Program design · 31%
A client does not respond to verbal cues to sit back during a squat. Which of the following is a KINESTHETIC cue?
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Guiding the hips back by hand, once the client agrees to be touched, lets the client feel the position, which is kinesthetic cueing.
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A slow-motion video is another visual cue, shown on a screen instead of in person.
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Demonstrating the squat from the side is a visual cue: the client watches the movement rather than feeling it.
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The car-door image describes a movement, but it reaches the client through words, so it is still a verbal cue.
12/30 · Program design · 31%
A client throws a heavy and a light medicine ball with the same force, and the heavy ball leaves the hands more slowly. Which law of motion explains this?
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Newton's second law, the law of acceleration (force = mass × acceleration), means the same force gives a heavier mass less acceleration.
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The law of action-reaction explains why the ball pushes back on the client's hands, not why the two balls leave at different speeds.
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The law of gravitation describes the pull between masses and is not one of Newton's three laws of motion.
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The law of inertia says a body keeps its state of motion until a force acts on it; it does not relate force, mass and change in speed.
13/30 · Program design · 31%
Which muscle does MOST of the work of breathing in during quiet rest?
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The external intercostals lift the ribs during inspiration, but at rest their share is small next to the diaphragm's.
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The scalenes are accessory muscles that join in during heavy breathing, not during quiet rest.
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At rest the diaphragm contracts and flattens, enlarging the chest cavity, and it does most of the work of breathing in.
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The internal intercostals pull the ribs down during forced exhalation and do not help breathe in.
14/30 · Progression · 27%
During a balance drill, an older client is pushed hard enough that her center of mass moves beyond her base of support. Which balance strategy can restore her balance?
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Once the center of mass is outside the base of support, only a step that creates a new base can bring balance back.
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The vestibular system in the inner ear senses head position; it informs balance but is not a movement response to a push.
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The ankle strategy handles small, slow sways while the center of mass stays well inside the base of support.
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The hip strategy copes with larger or faster disturbances, but only while the center of mass is still over the feet.
15/30 · Progression · 27%
A runner with mild shin discomfort that eases with rest wants to keep aerobic fitness while it settles. Which FITT change is MOST appropriate?
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Keeping running while increasing the time per run adds even more impact to tissue that is already sore.
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Cycling or pool running keeps the aerobic stimulus while removing the repeated impact that irritates the shins.
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Faster, shorter runs still pound the shins, and the higher intensity raises the impact of each stride.
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Cutting the frequency to one run per week lets aerobic fitness slide, which defeats the client's goal.
16/30 · Progression · 27%
A client often skips walks when it rains. The trainer helps her write, "If it's raining at 6 p.m., I'll do the 20-minute video in my living room." What is this strategy?
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Linking a specific situation, rain at 6 p.m., to a ready-made response is an implementation intention, often written as an if-then plan.
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A signed behavioral contract is an agreement, often with rewards, rather than a plan for one specific barrier.
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A decisional balance worksheet weighs the pros and cons of changing a behavior; it does not script a response to rain.
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An outcome goal names an end result, such as pounds lost, and says nothing about what to do when it rains.
17/30 · Risk & ethics · 19%
A client with chronic back pain takes a prescribed pain reliever before each session. What is the MAIN training concern?
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Common pain relievers do not sharply raise exercise heart rate, so heart-rate response is not the main issue.
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A pain reliever can hide the warning signs of injury that would normally make the client stop a harmful movement, so form and effort need closer watching.
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Lowering blood glucose during exercise is a concern with diabetes drugs such as insulin, not with pain relievers.
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Pain relievers dull pain; they do not speed muscle recovery after lifting.
18/30 · Risk & ethics · 19%
A client rolls her ankle during agility drills, and it swells quickly. Which immediate care is MOST appropriate?
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A heat pack and massage feel soothing but bring more blood to the joint, which adds to the swelling at this stage.
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In the first hours after a sprain, rest, ice, compression and elevation limit swelling and pain, with referral if she cannot bear weight.
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Walking it off and resuming drills stress an injured ligament before anyone knows how badly it is hurt.
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Stretching the ankle through full range pulls on the very ligaments that were just injured.
19/30 · Risk & ethics · 19%
An ACE Certified Personal Trainer must earn 2.0 continuing education credits (CECs) each cycle. How many contact hours is this?
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One ACE CEC equals 10 contact hours, so 2.0 CECs means 20 hours of approved education in each two-year cycle.
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Reading 2.0 CECs as 2 hours treats the credit number as hours, but each CEC stands for 10 hours.
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A total of 200 hours would equal 20 CECs, ten times the requirement.
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A total of 10 hours would earn only 1.0 CEC, half of the requirement.
20/30 · Onboarding · 23%
A trainer asks, "What does your week look like right now, and what has gotten in the way of exercising?" Which step of the GROW model is this?
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The Goal step names what the client wants to achieve, not what is happening now.
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The Options step brainstorms possible actions, which comes after the current obstacles are understood.
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The Will step secures commitment to a chosen plan, the last stage of the model.
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Asking about the client's current week and what gets in the way explores the present situation, the Reality step of GROW.
21/30 · Program design · 31%
A client can easily place her palms flat on the floor, and her elbows bend backward past straight. Which program emphasis is MOST appropriate?
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More stretching lengthens tissues that are already lax and can further reduce joint stability.
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Joints that already move past normal range need stability, so strength and control within a normal range is the priority.
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Loaded stretches at end range strain the ligaments and capsule that already let her joints overextend.
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Avoiding resistance training entirely removes the muscular support that would stabilize her lax joints.
22/30 · Program design · 31%
In a water exercise class, how can a client make an arm movement MORE challenging?
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A fist presents a smaller surface, and a slower stroke lowers resistance further, so this is the easiest version.
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A flat, open hand keeps the large surface, but moving slower reduces the drag the water creates.
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Slicing the hand edge-first lets it cut through the water, so the extra speed adds little resistance.
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Water resistance grows with speed and with the surface area pushing through it, so a fast stroke with a flat, open hand is the hardest version.
23/30 · Progression · 27%
A client performs reverse lunges with good control and needs a transverse-plane challenge. Which progression is MOST appropriate?
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Adding a torso rotation over the front leg brings in transverse-plane motion and trains control of rotational forces.
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A faster tempo adds speed, but each lunge still travels forward and back in the sagittal plane.
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Holding a dumbbell in each hand at the sides adds load without adding any rotation.
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Stepping back off a low platform adds range of motion, yet the movement stays in the sagittal plane.
24/30 · Progression · 27%
An older client performs a single-leg balance drill. Which change increases difficulty by raising the center of gravity?
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Standing on both feet widens the base of support and makes the drill easier.
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Bending the stance knee lowers the center of gravity rather than raising it.
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Holding a support rail adds an outside point of support and makes the drill easier.
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Raising both arms overhead lifts the body's center of gravity higher above a small base, which makes balance harder.
25/30 · Progression · 27%
Whenever a client vents about a discouraging week, her sister listens, shows that she cares, and tells her she believes in her. Which type of social support is this?
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Listening, showing care and expressing belief in someone are forms of emotional support.
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Instrumental support is practical, tangible help, such as a ride to the gym or childcare.
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Informational support means advice or facts, such as tips on choosing walking shoes.
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Companionship support means someone doing the activity with the client, which the sister is not doing here.
26/30 · Progression · 27%
A client who gave birth 8 weeks ago is cleared to exercise but notices a ridge bulging down the middle of her abdomen when she sits up. What is the MOST appropriate approach?
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Crunches push the abdomen outward along the midline and tend to worsen the bulge.
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Heavy front planks load the separated midline and can make the abdomen dome further.
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A year without any core work is unnecessary; gentle deep-core and breathing work is usually part of recovery.
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A midline bulge suggests diastasis recti, so core work is adjusted to avoid doming and a physical therapist assesses the gap.
27/30 · Risk & ethics · 19%
A client asks how to judge whether a health website is reliable. Which feature MOST suggests the information is trustworthy?
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A site that sells what it recommends has a conflict of interest that can bias its advice.
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Content reviewed by qualified experts and backed by citations to peer-reviewed research is the strongest sign of reliable health information.
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Client testimonials are personal anecdotes, not evidence that a claim holds up.
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Promises of results in two weeks are a classic marker of misinformation.
28/30 · Risk & ethics · 19%
A gym's employment contract states that trainers may not work with gym members within 10 miles for 1 year after leaving. What is this clause called?
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A waiver clause releases a party from liability for negligence; it says nothing about where a trainer can work later.
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An indemnification clause shifts the cost of claims or losses from one party to another.
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A force majeure clause excuses performance when events beyond anyone's control, such as natural disasters, intervene.
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A non-compete clause limits where and for how long a former employee may work with the business's clients; courts generally enforce only reasonable limits.
29/30 · Risk & ethics · 19%
A client asks to skip the warm-up to save time in his 30-minute sessions. What is the MOST appropriate response?
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Skipping the warm-up as requested gives up its injury-prevention benefits.
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Insisting on 15 minutes ignores his 30-minute limit when a shorter warm-up would do the job.
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A brief dynamic warm-up still raises muscle temperature and rehearses the session's movements, so explaining its purpose and shortening it respects his time.
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Static stretching alone does not raise body temperature or rehearse the session's movements, so it is a poor warm-up.
30/30 · Progression · 27%
A client's goal is fat loss. After 8 weeks her scale weight is unchanged, but her waist measurement is 2 inches smaller and her clothes fit more loosely. What is the BEST interpretation?
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Saying the program is not working ignores the smaller waist and looser clothes, which both reflect fat loss.
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Gaining body fat would enlarge the waist, not shrink it by 2 inches.
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A smaller waist and looser clothes with an unchanged scale point to fat loss, likely with some lean-tissue gain, so her body composition is improving.
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Scale weight cannot separate fat from muscle and water, so it is not the only, or the best, measure of fat loss.
What this set covers
Program Design and Implementation carries the most weight on the exam (31%), so it gets the most questions here, followed by Program Modification and Progression (27%). Client Onboarding and Assessments and Risk Management, Professional Conduct, and Ethical Business Practices fill the rest.
The exam's video items show a silent clip of a client moving and ask what you would do. A text quiz cannot play a clip, so several questions here describe the movement in words instead: what the knees, trunk or shoulders are doing, then the decision.
Turning a score into a plan
The percentage you see here is plain share-correct. ACE converts results to a scaled score (200–800) and passes at 500. "70% to pass" belongs to the open-book ACE Certificate, not to this exam.
Read your result by domain instead: the chips show which ones you missed, and ACE's own score report is split by domain as well.
Timing
With 3 hours for 150 items, the pace works out to about seventy seconds each (our arithmetic), and 25 of them are experimental and unscored with no marker. A video item eats more of the clock, so move quickly through plain recall.
Our questions, not ACE's
These questions were written for this site and are not taken from ACE's paid practice tests or from the exam. Rules quoted on this page come from ACE's handbook and scheduling page, checked Nov 4, 2026; see exam info.